{"id":864,"date":"2007-10-27T17:35:01","date_gmt":"2007-10-27T21:35:01","guid":{"rendered":"http:\/\/www.prefblog.com\/?p=864"},"modified":"2007-10-27T17:35:01","modified_gmt":"2007-10-27T21:35:01","slug":"research-modified-duration","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/prefblog.com\/?p=864","title":{"rendered":"Research : Modified Duration"},"content":{"rendered":"<p>Well, I talk about it often enough! This one leans a little too far to the &#8220;mathematical&#8221; to be considered mainstream fare, but I had to provide it in order that the keeners would have a rough idea of what I say*. Look for the research link!<\/p>\n<div align=\"center\"><a href=\"http:\/\/www.himivest.com\/media\/moneysaver_0705.pdf\"><img decoding=\"async\" src=\"http:\/\/www.prefblog.com\/images\/ad_ModifiedDuration.jpg\" \/><\/a><\/div>\n<p>*Assuming, of course, that the keeners <em>care<\/em> about understanding what I say!<\/p>\n<p><strong>Update and Bump, 2007-10-27<\/strong>: I have received a rather patronizing communication from a correspondent who claims that the formula given in the article for modified duration is incorrect.<\/p>\n<div align=\"center\"><img decoding=\"async\" id=\"image1375\" alt=\"modDurFormula.gif\" src=\"http:\/\/www.prefblog.com\/wp-content\/uploads\/2007\/10\/modDurFormula.gif\" \/><\/div>\n<p>\u00a0<\/p>\n<p>He claims that the variable &#8220;f&#8221; should always be equal to one and attaches two pages of calculus (including patronizing commentary) that proves it.<\/p>\n<p>Alas, my correspondent has forgotten to ask himself the questions that any investment manager should ask himself &#8211; particularly if holding himself out to be a quant:<\/p>\n<ul>\n<li>What assumptions are made, explicitly and implicitly, in the course of this calculation?<\/li>\n<li>Have I thoroughly checked these assumptions (insofar as it is possible to check assumptions!) ?<\/li>\n<li>What if I&#8217;m wrong?<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n<p>In this particular case, my correspondent has slipped up by assuming that &#8220;yield-to-maturity&#8221; (the &#8220;y&#8221; in the equation) is equal to the\u00a0internal rate of return.<\/p>\n<p>It ain&#8217;t. Yield-to-Maturity is, by street convention, equal to N times the coupon-period return, where N is the number of coupons per year. This point comes up over and over again &#8211; on this blog, for instance, there is a very similar discussion on <a href=\"http:\/\/www.prefblog.com\/?p=1227\">Research : Yield from On-Line Calculator<\/a>. It&#8217;s a tricky point and, in this degenerate age where one can find internal rate of return on Excel more easily than by explicit trial-and-error approximations, one that is easily forgotten.<\/p>\n<p>Ah, for the good old days! When men were men, when you had to understand a calculation before you could perform it, and no back-of-an-envelope was too humble to serve as a scratch pad!<\/p>\n<p>I have uploaded <a href=\"http:\/\/www.prefblog.com\/wp-content\/uploads\/2007\/10\/modDurDef.xls\">an MS-Excel Spreadsheet<\/a> in which two sets of calculations are made &#8211; the way in which my correspondent does calculations, and the way in which we do it on Planet Earth. I believe that my computer &#8211; and my Excel programme &#8211; are bug-free, so there will be no virus transmission; I believe that all reasonable precautions are made with my site and my hosting provider so that the spreadsheet will not be hacked after upload; and I believe that even if a macro-virus should reach my readers&#8217; computers, their anti-virus software will prevent harm.<\/p>\n<p><em>But what if I&#8217;m wrong<\/em>? I have also uploaded <a href=\"http:\/\/www.prefblog.com\/wp-content\/uploads\/2007\/10\/modDurDef.pdf\">PDF file<\/a> that reflects the spreadsheet, for use by those who don&#8217;t want to take the chance.<\/p>\n<p>In cells a1:d22, I have input the cash flows\u00a0reflecting the November 1, 2007, purchase of a par\u00a0bond that pays $5 every six months commencing May 1, 2008, and repays its principal on November 1, 2017. Since all calculations will be performed as of November 1, 2007, I feel perfectly justified in referring to this bond as a ten-year, 10% bond.<\/p>\n<p>The crucial point of the analysis is found in cell B24 &#8211; the XIRR function provided by Microsoft. It indicates that the internal rate of this bond is not 10%, as one might expect, but 10.2425%. This is easy enough to understand &#8211; for each year, we&#8217;re getting half of our quoted 10% six months early and can earn interest on this &#8211; but it is often forgotten. And this bond will not be quoted &#8211; anywhere &#8211; as yielding 10.24%. As an exercise, I suggest that interested readers sell such\u00a0a bond to their brokerage house &#8220;at a price to\u00a0yield 10.24%&#8221; and then invoice them for $100. Let me know what they tell you.<\/p>\n<p>In cells E1:E22, I have discounted each cash flow <em>by time in years<\/em> at the <em>yearly rate<\/em> of 10.25% indicated in cell E24. Cell E23 shows the sum of the present values thus calculated, 99.99945, so we may conclude that we understand how the XIRR functions works.<\/p>\n<p>In cells F1:F22, I have discounted each cash flow <em>by period<\/em> at the <em>period rate of return<\/em> of 5% indicated in cell F24. Cell F23 shows the sum of the present values thus calculated, 99.99945258, which I&#8217;m willing to conclude is a rounding error (particularly since I was lazy, and determined the period number by doubling the time in years, which will be off due to day-count and leap-year approximations. It&#8217;s OK for a quant to be lazy, as long as he <em>knows<\/em> he&#8217;s being lazy!). Anyway, this calculation confirms we know how to calculate returns by period.<\/p>\n<p>Cells H1:H26 calculate the Macaulay Duration of the bond according to the &#8220;time&#8221; cash flows; cells I1:I26 perform this calculation using the &#8220;period&#8221; cash flows; the results are as equal as we can expect anything in this wicked world to be.<\/p>\n<p>The next four cells to be examined, H28:I29,\u00a0are a little more complex. The Modified Duration is calculated by the disputed Equation 2 for each calculation method\u00a0using the indicated value of &#8220;y&#8221; and setting &#8220;f&#8221; to either &#8220;1&#8221; (as my correspondent insists is always the case) or &#8220;2&#8221; (which is dependent upon the number of coupon periods per year, as explained in the article. We obtain the following results:<\/p>\n<div align=\"center\">\n<table border=\"1\">\n<tr>\n<td colspan=\"3\">Modified Duration by Four Methodologies<\/td>\n<\/tr>\n<tr>\n<td>\u00a0<\/td>\n<td>&#8220;Time&#8221;<\/td>\n<td>&#8220;Period&#8221;<\/td>\n<\/tr>\n<tr>\n<td>f=1<\/td>\n<td>5.934<\/td>\n<td>5.948<\/td>\n<\/tr>\n<tr>\n<td>f=2<\/td>\n<td>6.223<\/td>\n<td>6.231<\/td>\n<\/tr>\n<\/table>\n<\/div>\n<p>That&#8217;s quite the range of differences! It should be clear from the calculations that the &#8220;correct&#8221; answer is given by &#8220;f=1&#8221; for the &#8220;Time&#8221; method and by &#8220;f=2&#8221; for the &#8220;Period&#8221; method &#8230; <em>but what if I&#8217;m wrong<\/em>?<\/p>\n<p>Cells E31:E53 calculate the present value of the bond according to the &#8220;time&#8221; method when the Internal rate of return is increased by 1 basis point. Cells F31:F53 calculate the present value when the &#8220;Yield to Maturity&#8221; (= twice period return) is increased by 1 basis point. The change in price effected by these changes is calculated as PVBP (Price Value of a Basis Point) in cells H53 and I53, respectively.<\/p>\n<p>We find that the Effective Modified Duration (we will refer to the results of this calculation as &#8220;Effective&#8221; modified duration because the change of 1bp in yield, while small, is not infinitesimal) is 5.93 for the &#8220;Time&#8221; method, which is equal to the answer calculated in cell H28 using f=1; it is 6.23 for the &#8220;Period&#8221; method, equal to the answer calculated in cell I29 using f=2.<\/p>\n<p>Thus, we find that Equation (2) of the article is absolutely correct &#8211; given the universally accepted definition of yield-to-maturity as being\u00a0(periods per year) * (period-rate-of-return).<\/p>\n<p>So, we can summarize our characterization of this bond as:<\/p>\n<div align=\"center\">\n<table border=\"1\">\n<tr>\n<td colspan=\"3\">Characterization of Bond<\/td>\n<\/tr>\n<tr>\n<td>Method<\/td>\n<td>Yield<\/td>\n<td>Modified<br \/>\nDuration<\/td>\n<\/tr>\n<tr>\n<td>IRR<\/td>\n<td>10.24%<\/td>\n<td>5.93<\/td>\n<\/tr>\n<tr>\n<td>Street Convention<\/td>\n<td>10.00%<\/td>\n<td>6.23<\/td>\n<\/tr>\n<\/table>\n<\/div>\n<p>Which method is right? Who knows? Who cares? What is truth? The street convention is simply that: a convention adopted in order to communicate.<\/p>\n<p>Immediately after posting this update, I will reply to my correspondent and ask for permission to publish his correspondence.<\/p>\n<p><strong>Update, 2007-10-29<\/strong> The idea &#8220;YTM = (coupon period return) * (coupons per year)&#8221; is usually expressed formulaicly as &#8220;coupon period return = 1 + (YTM \/ coupons per year)&#8221; or &#8220;coupon period discounting factor = 1 \/ [1 + (YTM \/ coupons per year)]&#8221;. See, for example <a href=\"http:\/\/www.bankofengland.co.uk\/publications\/news\/1997\/pdfs\/yieldeqn.pdf\">BANK OF ENGLAND FORMULAE FOR CALCULATING GILT PRICES FROM YIELDS<\/a><\/p>\n<p>Updated versions of this publication are available from the <a href=\"http:\/\/www.dmo.gov.uk\">UK Debt Management Office<\/a>.<\/p>\n<p><strong>Update, 2007-10-31<\/strong> I have uploaded <a href=\"http:\/\/www.prefblog.com\/wp-content\/uploads\/2007\/10\/Prices_Yields_on_Canadas.pdf\">a note from the Bank of Canada<\/a> on calculation conventions; there is also a <a href=\"http:\/\/www.fin.gc.ca\/invest\/bondprice-e.html\">Department of Finance Web-Page<\/a> available with the same information.<\/p>\n<p><b>Update, 2009-2-15<\/b>: Note that the Modified Duration of a PerpetualDiscount is <a href=\"http:\/\/www.prefblog.com\/?p=2582\">dependent solely upon its yield<\/a>.<\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"<p>Well, I talk about it often enough! This one leans a little too far to the &#8220;mathematical&#8221; to be considered mainstream fare, but I had to provide it in order that the keeners would have &hellip;<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"open","ping_status":"open","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":{"footnotes":""},"categories":[22],"tags":[],"class_list":["post-864","post","type-post","status-publish","format-standard","hentry","category-publications"],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/prefblog.com\/index.php?rest_route=\/wp\/v2\/posts\/864","targetHints":{"allow":["GET"]}}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/prefblog.com\/index.php?rest_route=\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/prefblog.com\/index.php?rest_route=\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/prefblog.com\/index.php?rest_route=\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/prefblog.com\/index.php?rest_route=%2Fwp%2Fv2%2Fcomments&post=864"}],"version-history":[{"count":0,"href":"https:\/\/prefblog.com\/index.php?rest_route=\/wp\/v2\/posts\/864\/revisions"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/prefblog.com\/index.php?rest_route=%2Fwp%2Fv2%2Fmedia&parent=864"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/prefblog.com\/index.php?rest_route=%2Fwp%2Fv2%2Fcategories&post=864"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/prefblog.com\/index.php?rest_route=%2Fwp%2Fv2%2Ftags&post=864"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}