Category: Miscellaneous News

Miscellaneous News

Fannie & Freddie Plan Released: Treasury Follows PrefBlog's Plan!

A WSJ article states:

The Treasury said its senior preferred stock purchase agreement includes and upfront $1 billion issuance of senior preferred stock with a 10% coupon from each GSE, quarterly dividend payments, warrants representing an ownership stake of 79.9% in each firm going forward, and a quarterly fee starting in 2010.

A press conference was held by Treasurey Secretary Paulson and FHFA Director Lockhart, with a press release issued by Treasury:

[Paulson said] Their statutory capital requirements are thin and poorly defined as compared to other institutions.

… but did not report his resignation.

[Lockhart said] To promote stability in the secondary mortgage market and lower the cost of funding, the GSEs will modestly increase their MBS portfolios through the end of 2009. Then, to address systemic risk, in 2010 their portfolios will begin to be gradually reduced at the rate of 10 percent per year, largely through natural run off, eventually stabilizing at a lower, less risky size.

Treasury has taken three additional steps to complement FHFA’s decision to place both enterprises in conservatorship. First, Treasury and FHFA have established Preferred Stock Purchase Agreements, contractual agreements between the Treasury and the conserved entities. Under these agreements, Treasury will ensure that each company maintains a positive net worth. These agreements support market stability by providing additional security and clarity to GSE debt holders – senior and subordinated – and support mortgage availability by providing additional confidence to investors in GSE mortgage backed securities. This commitment will eliminate any mandatory triggering of receivership and will ensure that the conserved entities have the ability to fulfill their financial obligations. It is more efficient than a one-time equity injection, because it will be used only as needed and on terms that Treasury has set. With this agreement, Treasury receives senior preferred equity shares and warrants that protect taxpayers. Additionally, under the terms of the agreement, common and preferred shareholders bear losses ahead of the new government senior preferred shares.

Lockhart also disclosed some startling news:

While conservatorship does not eliminate the common stock, it does place common shareholders last in terms of claims on the assets of the enterprise.

Similarly, conservatorship does not eliminate the outstanding preferred stock, but does place preferred shareholders second, after the common shareholders, in absorbing losses.

Amazing! Common shareholders take first loss, preferred shareholders take second loss. Who would have thunk it?

Preferred stock investors should recognize that the GSEs are unlike any other financial institutions and consequently GSE preferred stocks are not a good proxy for financial institution preferred stock more broadly. By stabilizing the GSEs so they can better perform their mission, today’s action should accelerate stabilization in the housing market, ultimately benefiting financial institutions. The broader market for preferred stock issuance should continue to remain available for well-capitalized institutions.

This is interesting. Is Treasury preparing for a pre-packaged Chapter 11 at some time in the future?

Lockhart concluded:

Because the GSEs are Congressionally-chartered, only Congress can address the inherent conflict of attempting to serve both shareholders and a public mission. The new Congress and the next Administration must decide what role government in general, and these entities in particular, should play in the housing market. There is a consensus today that these enterprises pose a systemic risk and they cannot continue in their current form. Government support needs to be either explicit or non-existent, and structured to resolve the conflict between public and private purposes. And policymakers must address the issue of systemic risk.

In the weeks to come, I will describe my views on long term reform. I look forward to engaging in that timely and necessary debate.

Several reports are attached:

REPORTS

From the Preferred Stock Purchase Agreement:

In exchange for entering into these agreements with the GSEs, Treasury will immediately receive the following compensation:

  • $1 billion of senior preferred stock in each GSE
  • Warrants for the purchase of common stock of each GSE representing 79.9% of the common stock of each GSE on a fully-diluted basis at a nominal price


The following covenants apply to the GSEs as part of the agreements.

o Without the prior consent of the Treasury, the GSEs shall not:

  • Make any payment to purchase or redeem its capital stock, or pay any dividends, including preferred dividends (other than dividends on the senior preferred stock)
  • Issue capital stock of any kind
  • Enter into any new or adjust any existing compensation agreements with “named executive officers” without consulting with Treasury
  • Terminate conservatorship other than in connection with receivership
  • Sell, convey or transfer any of its assets outside the ordinary course of business
    except as necessary to meet their obligation under the agreements to reduce their portfolio of retained mortgages and mortgage backed securities

  • Increase its debt to more than 110% of its debt as of June 30, 2008
  • Acquire or consolidate with, or merge into, another entity.
Miscellaneous News

Fannie & Freddie: Announcement this Evening?

Events surrounding a potential bail-out of Fannie & Freddie, which started picking up speed after Friday’s close, appear to be nearing a crescendo.

The New York Times reports (hat tip: Financial Webring Forum) that Freddie Mac overstated capital:

The methods used to bolster that cushion have caused serious concerns among the companies’ regulator, outside auditors and some investors. For example, while Freddie Mac’s portfolio contains many securities backed by subprime loans, made to the riskiest borrowers, and alt-A loans, one step up on the risk ladder, the company has not written down the value of many of those loans to reflect current market prices.

Executives have said that they intend to hold the loans to maturity, meaning they will be worth more, and they need not write down their value.

Freddie Mac and Fannie Mae have also inflated their financial positions by relying on deferred-tax assets — credits accumulated over the years that can be used to offset future profits. Fannie maintains that its worth is increased by $36 billion through such credits, and Freddie argues that it has a $28 billion benefit.

But such credits have no value unless the companies generate profits. They have failed to do so over the last four quarters and seem increasingly unlikely to the next year. Moreover, even when the companies had soaring profits, such credits often could not be used. That is because the companies were already able to offset taxes with other credits for affordable housing.

This sounds totally disingenuous to me. These accounting concerns are old news; the regulators would not be in least surprised to find them on the books, they’d just pretend it was horrible startling news.

Time Business & Economics columnist Justin Fox muddies the waters with disinformation:

But what about the shareholders? It seems only fair that if the government has to step in to take over the companies, shareholders should lose everything. Except that there’s a big complication: Lots of small and mid-sized banks in the U.S. have, with encouragement from regulators, built up big holdings in Fannie and Freddie preferred stock, which they use to satisfy their capital requirements. If Fannie and Freddie preferred shares become worthless, a lot of banks will become insolvent.

However, there is one redeeming feature to that post: he quotes his source, who did not say that. :

However, the government made Fannie and Freddie preferred stock a “permissible” investment to create a sufficiently large market for these securities.

Of course, making the stock “permissible” didn’t necessarily make it attractive, so regulators had to pull another trick. Under the risk-based capital rules, national banks may carry agency preferreds at a 20 percent risk weighting (pdf file), while state-chartered banks and OTS-regulated savings associations must apply a 100 percent risk weighting. This means that banks only have to hold 1.6% or 8% capital against their investments (or should we say ‘speculation’?) in Fannie and Freddie preferred stock.

Thomas Kirchner is long FNM. He manages the Pennsylvania Avenue Event-Driven Fund [PAEDX], which is long and short various FNM and FRE securities. He is a former FNM employee.

Mr. Kirchner in turn cites the OCC Publication “Activities Permissable for a National Bank”:

Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac Perpetual Preferred Stock. A national bank may invest in perpetual preferred stock issued by Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac without limit, subject to safety and soundness considerations. OCC Interpretive Letter No. 931 (March 15, 2002).

It should be noted that there is nothing in the cited document to support the assertion of 20% risk weight … PrefBlog’s Assiduous Readers, however, will have read my post Fannie Mae Preferreds: Count Towards Bank Capital? in which some support for the 20% risk-weight figure was unearthed.

Naked Capitalism linked to a John Dizard column in the Financial Times:

Last week I wrote about these preferreds; my position was that if or, rather, when the Treasury had to recapitalise the GSEs with new, senior preferred issues, it would be a really good idea from the taxpayers’ point of view to leave the old preferreds in place while wiping out the value of the outstanding common stock.

… which is not inconsistent with the solution I see as best, but his original column was not very specific:

Still, to the point raised by Peters and the other cautionary voices, there are answers. First, Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac need to be nationalised, in the sense that the federal government injects capital in the form of preferred equity and direct credit support, wiping out the existing common. I believe it is critical that that takeover leaves the privately held preferred stock of the government-sponsored enterprises in place. Preserving the value of GSE preferred issues is very much in the taxpayers’ interest, as it makes possible the recapitalisation of the rest of the banking system.

Very interesting, but just macro-style generalities.

However, the Wall Street Journal has reported:

U.S. Treasury Secretary Henry Paulson and Federal Housing Finance Agency Director James Lockhart are expected to release details of the planned conservatorship of Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac at an 11 a.m. press conference in downtown Washington.

More when I know more …

Update: See Fannie & Freddie Plan Released: Treasury Follows PrefBlog’s Plan!

Miscellaneous News

Harry Koza Likes Fixed-Resets

Harry Koza titled his G&M column of today Back to the 70s: We haven’t seen spreads this wide since Carter, in which he states (emphasis added):

tapping the market right after their third-quarter earnings in late August with five-year rate reset preferred share issues (TD, Scotiabank, BMO and CIBC).

Those are interesting. You get a nice dividend for the first five years, ranging from 5 per cent for TD and Scotiabank, to BMO at 5.2 per cent and CIBC at 5.35 per cent. At the end of five years, the dividend resets at a juicy spread over whatever a five-year Government of Canada bond yields at that time – the CIBC one resets at 218 basis points over Canadas. Of course, they are redeemable on every five-year anniversary date as well, so if the current historically wide yield spreads have reverted to precredit crunch levels by then (which, to my jaundiced view of the current credit conflagration, is no better than an even money bet) and the bank can refinance cheaper, they will call them away from you, and you’ll have to reinvest elsewhere, possibly at lower yields.

Still, they are worth a look for taxable income investors. Good credits, decent yield, five-year term. Gee, I almost want to buy some myself.

Five-year term? I’m sure that is how they’re being sold, but I will continue to refer to them as having a “pretend-5-year-term”. If they turn out to be awful investments, they will turn out to be very-long-term instruments.

In a a discussion on FWR the point was made:

Won’t the fact that the issuer may call if there is inflation be a good thing? as unlike a perpetual, all things being equal it keeps the price closer to issue price.

Well, first I’ll make the point that these fixed-reset issues are perpetual. They simply have a dividend that resets. The credit risk is perpetual.

But what will happen if there is inflation? We can expect the Government of Canada 5-year bond yield and 90-day T-bill yield to increase to provide some kind of real yield; and then there will be a credit spread (of varying size) to be added to that. So, yes, one must agree: fixed-reset perpetuals offer a degree of protection against inflation-risk that is not present with “straight” (fixed dividend) perpetuals.

We’re investors, however. The question, as always, is not “Is there risk?” but rather “How much risk, of what particular kinds, is there and how much am I getting paid to take it?”. Given that straight perpetuals now yield about a point – maybe a bit more – over the initial fixed-reset rate, we can say we’re being paid 100 basis points (annually!) to take on that inflation risk.

Some investors may think that’s not enough. Some investors may think it’s very generous. I feel that central banks, globally, learned their lessons very well in the 1970s and that at the present time the Bank of Canada can be trusted to take their inflation mandate seriously (and that politicians can be trusted not to change the mandate).

Is this a guarantee? Am I therefore recommending a 100% holding in straight perpetuals? Of course not. There are no guarantees in either life or investing … inflation risk is forever with us (to some degree or another) and the question is: how do we set up a total portfolio that will allow us to achieve our goals in the face of a wide spectrum of risks – including, but not limited to, inflation.

While I will not condemn the Fixed-Reset Asset class completely – I will not condemn any asset class completely, everything has a price – I will suggest that perpetual preferreds are not the most logical choice of inflation hedge, even if they reset.

Fixed-Resets have attracted a wide variety of views, which I have endeavored to present on PrefBlog:

Make your own minds up and don’t – ever – make any bets you can’t afford to lose.

Update: As stated above, inflation is a risk. But so is deflation:

Other economists anticipate a calamitous deflation. Albert Edwards, economist strategist at Société Générale, the Paris-based investment bank, says an apocalyptic deflation will hit the global economy next year, cutting through equity assets “like Freddy Krueger.”

Michael Mandel, a PhD economist who writes for BusinessWeek magazine, predicts the rapid withering of inflation. “A year from now, will we be talking about galloping inflation or a plunge into deflation?” he asks. “I think the odds favour deflation or, at least, lower inflation. Producer price inflation in the traditional service industries is now only 0.6 per cent on a year-over-year basis – and the majority of the [U.S.] economy is services, not manufacturing. [This measure] is the best gauge of inflation that we have.”

There’s always more than one risk! Deflation will, of course, boost straight perpetuals – at least by the amount of their discount, at least until the first call date.

Data Changes

Fixed-Resets: A Review

Well, as previously noted, despite my misgivings, I have to add the fixed-resets to the HIMIPref™ universe since:

  • There are now 10 issues outstanding, making intra-sectoral swaps a source of potential profit
  • They comprise more than 10% of the TXPR Index

So, not being one to wish to waste perfectly good notes, I thought I’d review the characteristics of the issues so far:

Fixed-Reset Issues Announced or Issued
to September 4, 2008
Ticker Initial
Rate
Reset
Spread
First
Exchange
Date
TD.PR.? 5.00% 196 bp 2014-1-31
CM.PR.? 5.35% 218 bp 2014-7-31
BNS.PR.? 5.00% 188 bp 2014-1-25
TD.PR.Y 5.10% 168 bp 2013-10-31
BMO.PR.M 5.20% 165 bp 2013-8-25
NA.PR.N 5.375% 205 bp 2013-8-15
TD.PR.S 5.00% 160 bp 2013-7-31
BNS.PR.Q 5.00% 170 bp 2013-10-25
FTS.PR.G 5.25% 213 bp 2013-9-1
BNS.PR.P 5.00% 205 bp 2013-4-25
Miscellaneous News

US TIPS: 5-Year Issue in Danger

As reported by Bloomberg, an advisory committee to the Treasury has recommended:

The Committee generally agreed that an increase of average maturity in the TIPS program would be best accomplished by reducing or eliminating 5-year TIPS issuance. There was general agreement that given the excess cost to date and the non-transient liquidity premium of TIPS, inflation indexed secruties over the past 10 years have proven to be a less efficient funding mechanism given Treasury’s objective of the lowest cost of borrowing over time. The Committee also reiterated its previous suggestion of moderating the growth of the program and eliminating 5-year TIPS issuance.

Director Ramanathan responded by stating that Treasury remained committed to the TIPS, but that a moderation in the growth of the program has occurred given the pace of issuance ver the past ten years relative to nominal issuance.

A detailed report is alluded to in the linked minutes, but … I can’t find it! Any help on this will be gratefully appreciated.

The discussion, as reported in the report and the minutes, seems to indicate a conclusion that the liquidity premium paid by Treasury outweighs the inflation risk premium recieved (or, more precisely, not paid) by Treasury. The importance of the liquidity premium is researched by the Cleveland Fed.

Sadly, I have not had a chance to read the BIS Quarterly Review article on inflation-indexed bonds with this conclusion firmly in mind.

Miscellaneous News

Fannie Mae Preferreds: Count Towards Bank Capital?

Via Dealbreaker comes a WSJ Deal Journal post that makes the following rather odd claim:

But the fact remains that the government allowed banks to count Fannie and Freddie preferred shares toward their capital ratios, which made them appear safe.

I don’t understand this. I do see from the enormous Federal Reserve Bank Supervision Manual that:

U.S. government–sponsored agencies are agencies originally established or chartered by the federal government to serve public purposes specified by the U.S. Congress. Such agencies generally carry out functions performed directly by the central government in other countries. The obligations of government-sponsored agencies generally are not explicitly guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government. Claims (including securities, loans, and leases) on, or guaranteed by, such agencies are assigned to the 20 percent risk category. U.S. government–sponsored agencies include, but are not limited to, the College Construction Loan Insurance Association, Farm Credit Administration, Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation, Federal Home Loan Bank System, Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation (FHLMC or Freddie Mac), Federal National Mortgage Association (FNMA or Fannie Mae), Financing Corporation (FICO), Postal Service, Resolution Funding Corporation (REFCORP), Student Loan Marketing Association (SLMA or Sallie Mae), Smithsonian Institution, and Tennessee Valley Authority (TVA).

I assume “securities” includes preferred shares, but I can’t find that in so many words. If so, then FNM prefs would be assigned a 20% risk weight rather than the normal 100% … in much the same way as AAA sub-prime paper was assigned a 20% risk-weight! See The role of ratings in structured finance: issues and implications :

Standardised risk weights for securitisation exposures: AAA to AA–, 20%; A+ to A–, 50%; BBB+ to BBB–, 100%; BB+ to BB– receive 350% for investors, but deduction for originators; B+ and below and unrated positions will have to be deducted in all cases, with the exceptions mentioned above. See Himino (2004) for a short overview of the Basel II framework.

This little example of what I suspect is a simple error would not normally be worth a post all to itself – but I think I’ve seen this claim elsewhere and find it puzzling. What on earth does the WSJ mean by saying that Fannie Mae prefs can count towards a bank’s capital? Any elucidation would be appreciated.

Update: Dealbreaker says:

Regulators require to banks to maintain a capital cushion against losses on loans. This capital requirement can be met by holding cash or cash equivalents and certain investments that were considered relatively risk-free.

… which makes no sense to me at all. I’ve asked for clarification in the comments.

Felix Salmon asks why the prefs were being held at all; the first commenter responds:

I believe that the capital requirements for GSE equity differ among the regulators. I think the risk weight is as low as 20% for GSE equity per at least one of the agencies.

… which makes perfect sense, but is not what is being said by Dealbreaker and the WSJ.

Update: OK, there’s a commentator on Dealbreaker who states:

The biggest owners of GSE pfds relative to the size of their balance sheet are smaller banks — state-chartered and thrifts. State-chartered banks and thrifts have a 100% risk weighting on GSE preferreds, while national banks have only a 20% risk weighting.

… but he doesn’t give chapter and verse.

In the “oldie but goodie” category comes a paper from the Cato Institute – The Mounting Case for Privatizing Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac … dated December 29, 1997! Anyway, any specifics in this paper with respect to bank supervision will have been long superseded, but it is claimed that:

12 C.F.R. 3-Appendix A(3)(a)(2)(vi) (Office of the Comptroller national bank regulations). Such securities are given a 20 percent risk weight, which is not as favorable as the 0 percent risk weight of U.S. government securities, but is more favorable than the 50 percent risk weight generally placed on privately issued mortgage-backed securities. The Office of Thrift Supervision’s regulation, 12 C.F.R. 567.6(a)(1)(ii)(H), has slightly different standards than the banking agencies, allowing certain “high quality mortgage-related securities” other than GSE securities to be accorded a 20 percent risk weight. 12 U.S.C. 24(7) details diversification standards for national banks.

And finally … the Holy Grail … Assessing the Banking Industry’s Exposure to an Implicit Government Guarantee of GSEs … and FDIC paper from 2004. Now I have to find something more recent that links to it!

There were no links I could find … but there is a fascinating letter from the Federal Home Loan Bank of New York.

Miscellaneous News

macroblog Returns!

From Econbrowser comes the great news of macroblog’s return after having been moribund for quite some time.

As Dave Altig explains:

I originally launched macroblog in 2004 as an independent blog, but it will now be run through the Atlanta Fed on our Web site. Macroblog will feature commentary by me as well as other members of the Bank’s research department.

macroblog has been added to the blogroll.

Miscellaneous News

FDIC Approves Covered Bonds

The US Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation has issued a press release announcing their formal approval of covered bonds:

On April 23, 2008, the FDIC published an Interim Final Covered Bond Policy Statement and requested public comment. The FDIC received approximately 130 comment letters, including comments from national banks, federal home loan banks, industry groups, and individuals. Most commenters supported the FDIC’s adoption of the Policy Statement to clarify how the FDIC would treat covered bonds in the case of a conservatorship or receivership and, thereby, facilitate the development of the U.S. covered bond market. After reviewing the comments, FDIC staff recommended Board approval of the final Policy Statement.

The full statement reviews the comment letters. It’s a very different release altogether from the terse OSFI statement.

Miscellaneous News

Loan Losses: ALLL vs. EL

These are some notes for a forthcoming article.

The US Interagency Policy Statement on the Allowance for Loan and Lease Losses (via Deloitte’s IAS Plus, December 16, 2006.

FAS 5 requires the accrual of a loss contingency when information available prior to the issuance of the financial statements indicates it is probable that an asset has been impaired at the date of the financial statements and the amount of loss can be reasonably estimated. These conditions may be considered in relation to individual loans or in relation to groups of similar types of loans. If the conditions are met, accrual should be made even though the particular loans that are uncollectible may not be identifiable. Under FAS 114, an individual loan is impaired when, based on current information and events, it is probable that a creditor will be unable to collect all amounts due according to the contractual terms of the loan agreement. It is implicit in these conditions that it must be probable that one or more future events will occur confirming the fact of the loss. Thus, under GAAP, the purpose of the ALLL is not to absorb all of the risk in the loan portfolio, but to cover probable credit losses that have already been incurred.

Typically, institutions evaluate and estimate credit losses for off-balance sheet credit exposures at the same time that they estimate credit losses for loans. While a similar process should be followed to support loss estimates related to off-balance sheet exposures, these estimated credit losses are not recorded as part of the ALLL. When the conditions for accrual of a loss under FAS 5 are met, an institution should maintain and report as a separate liability account, an allowance that is appropriate to cover estimated credit losses on off-balance sheet loan commitments, standby letters of credit, and guarantees.

The discussion in Donald Powell’s testimony to the Senate Banking, Housing & Urban Affairs Committee (2005) states:

Some comment is also needed about the possibility of using the allowance for loan and lease losses (ALLL) as a benchmark for evaluating the conservatism of ELs. The aggregate allowance reported by the 26 companies in QIS-4 totaled about $55 billion, and exceeded their aggregate EL, and this comparison might suggest the ELs were not particularly conservative and could be expected to increase. We do not believe this would be a valid inference. The ALLL is determined based on a methodology that measures losses imbedded over a non-specific future time horizon. Basel II ELs, in contrast, are intended to represent expected one-year credit losses. Basel II in effect requires the allowance to exceed the EL (otherwise there is a dollar for dollar capital deduction to make up for any shortfall). More important, the Basel II framework contains no suggestion that if the EL is less than the ALLL, then the EL needs to be increased—on the contrary this situation is encouraged, up to a limit, with tier 2 capital credit.

Given these considerations, we regard the comparison of ELs to average charge offs as a proxy for the degree of conservatism imbedded in PD and LGD estimates. ELs that are in excess of loss experience in effect imbed a cushion into QIS-4 capital requirement, and suggest that when the system goes live, lower capital requirements could be supported consistent with the standards prescribed by the framework.

A defense of Future Margin Income as an offset to EL – Future Margin Income and the EL Charge for Credit Cards in Basel II:

Specifically, while regulators view the ALLL as serving the purpose of “covering” EL, practitioners disagree and say that loan yields must at least cover EL so that all of the ALLL is available to serve a capital purpose. Specifically, practitioners say that yields must be at least enough to cover interest expenses, all net noninterest expenses, all expected credit losses, and a market return to economic capital. If this is not the case, the bank has
priced the loan too low and the loan is not generating any added value to the bank’s shareholders.

Risk Management Association comment letter (2003)

Basel staff apparently believes that, since Total Capital is defined to include the ALLL, and since some supervisors and some bankers have stated that “the ALLL covers EL”, required Total Capital should therefore be measured as LCI inclusive of EL, not net of EL.

This supervisory view is in sharp contrast to the view of the risk practitioner. In our view, the ALLL is an accounting item that has nothing to do with covering EL and, in fact, has nothing to do with measuring required risk-adjusted or economic capital. There is a quite separate question, of course, as to whether the ALLL should be among those balance sheet items that constitute actual capital for purposes of deciding whether such balance sheet capital is at least as high as measured Economic Capital (EC). If such a balance sheet test is not met that is, if the bank’s balance sheet analogue to mark-to-market capital (mark to market net asset value) is not at least equal to EC then the bank is undercapitalized by its own standards. The bank cannot be meeting its particular debt-rating target (soundness target) unless it has real capital at least equal to measured EC. Until Basel’s authors separate these two issues a) how to measure required capital (EC) versus b) how to define the balance sheet items that should be included within a measurement of actual capital it will continue to have difficulty aligning the Pillar 1 requirements with best-practice economic capital procedures. In the market’s view, capital is not needed to cover EL because the essential risk pricing and shareholder value-added relationships require that EL be at least covered by expected future margins. Note that we do not say that EL is covered by actual future margins, only that expected losses are at least covered by expected margins. Business practice has always required that prices cover expected losses, other expenses, and a return to capital even before the advent of Economic Capital.

Not only should required capital be measured net of EL, but also, as indicated above, actual mark-to-market capital is best approximated by including the ALLL in Tier 1 capital. It is Tier 1 capital that is the true, expensive form of capital, and including the ALLL in Tier 1 would reduce, if not eliminate, inequitable capital treatment across nations associated with differences in the accounting treatment of the ALLL. That is, abstracting from tax and dividend effects, any mandated high levels of ALLL (in a conservative ALLL country) would correspondingly reduce retained earnings, while any leniency in accounting for ALLL (in liberal ALLL countries) would result in increased retained earnings.

Competitive Effects of Basel II on US Bank Credit Card Lending (2007)

We analyze the potential competitive effects of the proposed Basel II capital regulations on U.S. bank credit card lending. We find that bank issuers operating under Basel II will face higher regulatory capital minimums than Basel I banks, with differences due to the way the two regulations treat reserves and gain-on-sale of securitized assets. During periods of normal economic conditions, this is not likely to have a competitive effect; however, during periods of substantial stress in credit card portfolios, Basel II banks could face a significant competitive disadvantage relative to Basel I banks and nonbank issuers.

There are several important differences between the Basel II rules and Basel I rules with respect to the measurement of regulatory capital. The Basel II regime defines capital as a cushion against unexpected losses and not against all losses as in Basel I. Thus, under Basel II, expected losses (calculated as PD × EAD × LGD) are deducted from total capital. This change in the concept of capital is particularly important for credit cards, since expected losses on credit cards are approximately 10 times higher than those on other bank loan products. Thus, a large component of the impact of Basel II on effective capital requirements comes from the deduction of expected loss from total regulatory capital and the treatment of the allowance for loan and lease losses (ALLL), which is meant to offset the bank’s expected losses.

The ALLL and expected losses also affect the definition of tier 1 capital under Basel II but not under Basel I. If eligible reserves are less than expected losses, then half of the reserve shortfall is deducted from tier 1 capital. This shortfall is calculated based on a bank’s entire portfolio and not product by product. Whereas bank reserves allocated to credit card loans are typically less than expected losses, reserves often exceed expected losses for many other bank products. Thus, Basel II monoline credit card banks would typically have a substantial tier 1 capital deduction due to the reserve shortfall, while most diversified banking institutions would not have a tier 1 deduction, since the surplus reserves in other portfolios will offset the reserve shortfall in the credit card portfolio. Thus, under Basel II, monolines benefit with respect to total capital because of the reserve cap provision but issuers within diversified banking organizations benefit with respect to tier 1 capital because of the treatment of the reserve shortfall.

Risk Management Assoc., 2004:

The Framework’s limit on the amount of the ALLL that can count as Tier 2 capital. In the U.S. (and possibly in some other Basel countries), single-family residential (“SFR”) lending and credit card lending could be handicapped by the Framework’s treatment of the [ALLL minus EL] test. Reserves for SFRs, as is the case for other business lines, are accounted for roughly in proportion to current expected loss rates on the SFR portfolio. Over the last several years, even with the recent recession, such expected loss rates have been low. As a result, mortgage businesses have tended to hold their economic capital in the form of real equity, not in the form of high reserves. Basel LGDs, however, would likely be a multiple of current economic LGDs, which, under the Framework, could lead to a “shortfall” in the ALLL minus EL calculation. Fifty percent of this shortfall must be deducted from Tier 1 capital and 50% from Tier 2 capital, for regulatory capital purposes. Even though the market views the sum of Tier 1 plus the ALLL to be a cushion against unexpected losses, the mortgage business lines would be penalized for holding their capital in the form of equity rather than reserves.
In credit card lending, accounting practices also do not permit high reserves. footnote 3 In particular, U.S. banks are not permitted to establish a loan loss reserve for the undrawn portion of lines. Moreover, some banks do not reserve for accounts held for securitization (which are carried at fair value or LOCOM). Most importantly, auditors may require that the ALLL for outstanding card balances be computed over a shorter horizon than the one-year horizon associated with EL. As a consequence, [ALLL – EL] may be in a shortfall for banks engaged in the card business — especially, for those banks securitizing some portion of their card accounts. Banks that engage in the card business therefore may hold capital in the form of equity, not reserves, against the risk of such products — and the market does not distinguish between these two forms of capital. Similar problems may arise within other retail lines of business such as HELOCs and home equity term loans.
We suggest that the inequities associated with the [ALLL-EL] test may be alleviated through country-specific treatment of the ALLL-EL computation. That is, where GAAP does not permit there to be a positive ALLL-EL computation, the supervisor might first make a determination as to the sufficiency of overall bank capital. Where no capital deficiency exists, the supervisor could then treat the ALLL for capital purposes as if it equaled EL. Still another method to treat the problem would be for supervisors to permit an EL calculation (only for purposes of the ALLL-EL test) in which the EL calculation uses the same horizon and assumptions as are built into the accounting treatment of the ALLL.

Note: footnote 3 Although accounting practices do not permit high reserves, the bank still has a market capital requirement that must be met with another form of equity. Thus, the ratios of Tier 1 to Total Capital at the large mortgage and card specialists in the RMA group are significantly higher than for large full-line banks. It would be inequitable to reduce the amount of recognized Tier 1 at these institutions because of accounting procedures.

footnote 4 There are at least three types of differences in assumptions that exist between the GAAP treatment of provisions and the EL computation as required by Basel: a) GAAP may require a shorter time horizon; b) GAAP may not include all of the economic expenses associated with default and recovery, such as certain foreclosure and REO expenses, and the time value of money; and c) GAAP provisioning incorporates current expectations regarding LGDs, not stressed LGDs.

Repullo & Suarez examined the procyclicity of Basel II and estimated:

Under realistic parameterisations, Basel II leads banks to hold buffers that range from about 2% of assets in recessions to about 5% in expansions. The procyclicality of these buffers reflects the fact that banks are concerned about the upsurge in capital requirements that takes place when the economy goes into a recession. We find, however, that these equilibrium buffers are insufficient to neutralise the effects of the arrival of a recession, which may cause a very significant reduction in the supply of credit – ranging from 2.5% to 12% in our simulations, depending on the assumed cyclical variation of the default rates.

Bank of Canada Financial System Review, June 2003:

Update, 2008-07-23: See also What Constrains Banks?

Update, 2008-07-23: Basel II and the Scope for Prompt Corrective Action in Europe:

The Quantitative Impact Studies conducted by the Basel Committee regarding the effects of implementing the Internal Ratings standard indicate that many banks will be able to lower their required capital as much as 25 percent while other similar banks will not be able to reduce their required capital at all. The variation in capital requirements across banks that seem to be similar in terms of risk-taking can become very large. This sensitivity of banks’ required capital to their choice of assets could lead to distortions of banks’ investments in risky assets. Banks will favour some assets over others in spite of similar risk and return because they can reduce the required capital without reducing the return on assets. One remedy for such distortions is to use PCA trigger ratios to introduce definitions that do not depend on Basel II risk weights. One possibility is to use simple leverage ratios (equity to non-weighted assets) as trigger ratios. Another is to use the standardized risk-weights in Basel II based on evaluations of borrowers by external rating agencies.

See also Bank Regulation: The Assets to Capital Multiple.

WaMu Letter, 2004:

As a final point, the U.S. applies an even more arbitrary “Tier 1 leverage” ratio of 5% (defined as the ratio of Tier 1 capital to total assets) in order for a bank to be deemed “well-capitalized”. As we have noted in our prior responses, the leverage requirement forces banks with the least risky portfolios (those for which best-practice Economic Capital requirements and Basel minimum Tier 1 requirements are less than 5% of un-risk-weighted assets) either to engage in costly securitization to reduce reported asset levels or give up their lowest risk business lines. These perverse effects were not envisioned by the authors of the U.S. “well-capitalized” rules, but some other Basel countries have adopted these rules and still others might be contemplating doing the same.

ALLL should continue to be included in a bank’s actual capital irrespective of EL. As we and other sources [footnotes] have noted, it is our profit margins net the cost of holding (economic) capital that must more than cover EL. As a member of the Risk Management Association’s (RMA) Capital Working Group, we refer the reader to a previously published detailed discussion of this issue that we have participated with other RMA members in developingfootnote 4. This issue is also addressed at length in RMA’s pending response to this same Oct. 11, 2003 proposal.

A Bridge too Far, Peter J. Wallison, 2006

Furthermore, the Basel formulas do not take into account a bank’s portfolio as a whole; they operate solely by adding up the assessments of each individual exposure and thus do not consider concentration risk.

[Footnote] The BCBS notes: “The model should be portfolio invariant, i.e. the capital required for any given loan should only depend on the risk of that loan and must not depend on the portfolio it is added to. This characteristic has been deemed vital in order to make the new IRB framework applicable to a wider range of countries and institutions. Taking into account the actual portfolio composition when determining capital for each loan — as is done in more advanced credit portfolio models — would have been a too complex task for most banks and supervisors alike.” (BCBS, An Explanatory Note, 4.)

To compensate for Basel II’s deficiencies, U.S. regulators (under Congressional pressure) have decided to keep the leverage ratio as an element of the capital tests that would be applied to banks even if Basel II is ultimately adopted. This seems sensible. The leverage ratio — tier 1 capital divided by total assets — is not a formula, nor is it risk-based; it is simply a measurement of the size of the ultimate capital cushion that a bank has available in the event of severe losses. It is an important fail-safe measure because it will become the binding element of the capital requirements for banks using Basel II if their risk-based capital levels — as measured by the IRB approach — fall too low. In a sense, no harm can come from the deficiencies of Basel II as long as the leverage ratio — at its current level — remains in place.

Heavyweights clash over “meaningless” ratios :

But the FDIC is the first to explicitly identify a possible conflict between this existing US approach to bank safety and possible outcomes under Basel II – and to marshal a strong defence of the leverage ratio.

This is because bank capital is divided into Tier 1 and Tier 2 categories. Yet, only Tier 1 capital really counts, because that is real equity. Tier 2 capital consists of subordinated debt. An increase in subordinated debt does not decrease a bank’s probability of insolvency. In fact, it is the failure of that debt that constitutes insolvency, says [independent consultant, and advisor to the Philadelphia-based Risk Management Association (RMA), John] Mingo.

So, it is only Tier 1 capital that determines insolvency probability. “The Basel Committee, being political, was obliged to adopt total capital as its standard – including subordinated debt – because the Japanese banks don’t have any equity,” he adds. The decision to make Tier 1 capital a minimum of half total capital, as well as the choice of a 99.9% confidence interval for total capital, were also arbitrary, in Mingo’s view.

Everything Old is New Again – The Return of the Leverage Ratio:

On June 19, 2008, Peter Thal Larsen of the Financial Times reported that, “Philipp Hildebrand, vice-chairman of the Swiss National Bank, called for the introduction of a “leverage ratio”, which would place a limit on the extent to which a bank’s assets could exceed its capital base.” (“Swiss banker calls for ‘leverage ratio’”, Peter Thal Larsen, June 19 2008) The idea now is that while adjusting the leverage ratio for risk is a laudable goal, the models that facilitate the adjustment are necessarily flawed to one extent or another and cannot be adequately relied upon, in isolation.

Good background piece: The Basel Accords: The Implementation of II and the Modification of I – Congressional Research Service, 2006

IIF, ISDA, LIBA comment letter, 2007:

The Agencies have publicly indicated their intention to retain the leverage ratio in conjunction with the new international framework capital requirements. We believe that the leverage ratio should be reviewed for phase-out upon completion of the introduction of the international framework. This device not only lacks risk sensitivity but ignores fundamental principles by which modern financial institutions manage their portfolios and risks. In particular, the application of the leverage ratio is inconsistent with the fundamental Basel II principle by which banks can improve their risk profiles either by holding additional capital or by holding less risk in their portfolios. In essence, a regulatory capital tool that limits itself to a crude comparison of assets in the balance sheet against capital is inconsistent with the way financial institutions currently operate.
For certain banks subject to the international framework, the leverage ratio will become a binding constraint because of its lack of risk sensitivity. Banks that accumulate low credit risk assets on their balance sheets will be penalized for adopting such a strategy, because the leverage ratio is not dependent on how conservatively banks operate. This will have the counter-prudential effect of encouraging those banks that find themselves constrained by the leverage ratio to change strategy, possibly by acquiring riskier assets until their regulatory risk-based capital and leverage capital requirements are equalized, or by reducing their willingness to provide credit services vital to the health of the economy.
Even banks that have very strong capital structures, with substantial Tier 1 capital against RWA, may be caught by the rigidity of the leverage ratio. The leverage ratio requirement thus can distort market perceptions and improperly interfere with management strategy, because it is a constraint inconsistent with the objective of introducing more risk-sensitive capital requirements, as agreed through the international framework. Continuation of the leverage ratio undermines many of the purposes the regulatory community – including the US regulators – sought to accomplish when they saw the need to replace Basel I.
Moreover, to the extent that the leverage ratio results in a higher minimum capital requirement than justified by the risk presented by banks’ activities, the regulatory requirement will have the effect of reducing the flow of credit to the economy. We therefore believe that the permanent retention of the leverage ratio is not appropriate from an economic perspective. It may be unavoidable to retain a leverage ratio during the capital-floor periods to manage the transition from Basel I to Basel II, but this should be a temporary expedient, subject to regulatory review within a reasonable period of time. It should be stressed that this is a comment on the lack of risk sensitivity, risk-management disincentives, and negative international competitive effects of the leverage ratio. It is not a comment on the general concept of prompt corrective action (PCA). We support the principle of prompt corrective action properly linked with the more appropriate risk-sensitive requirements of Basel II, which in turn will strengthen PCA’s effectiveness.

Update, 2008-7-24: See also

Miscellaneous News

Lehman Discloses Basel II Ratios

Lehman is in the news:

Lehman Brothers Holdings Inc., the securities firm that lost almost 75 percent of its market value this year, sank to the lowest since 2000 in New York trading as customers’ votes of confidence failed to halt speculation that the stock may drop further.

Lehman, once the biggest U.S. underwriter of mortgage bonds, fell 40 cents, or 5.2 percent, to $16.40 before the official open on the New York Stock Exchange. Shares of the New York-based investment bank have lost 24 percent this week.

“There’s a concentrated effort to break Lehman,” [Ladenburg Thalmann & Co. analyst Richard] Bove said. “And I can’t say it won’t work because it worked with Bear.”

About 70.3 million shares, or 10 percent of Lehman’s outstanding stock, were sold short by investors as of June 30, compared with 37 million at the start of the year, the New York Stock Exchange said yesterday.

According to Lehman:

Lehman’s Capital
May 31, 2008
Item Billions (except for percentages)
Common Equity $19.3
Intangibles (4.1)
Deferred Tax (2.3)
own debt valuation (1.5)
Other (0.1)
Qualifying unrestricted securities 7.9
Qualifying Restricted Securities 4.0
Total Tier 1 Capital 23.2
Qualifying subordinated notes 11.6
Total Capital 34.8
Risk Weighted Assets : Credit Risk 93.3
Risk Weighted Assets: Market Risk 91.1
Risk Weighted Assets: Operational Risk 32.2
Total Risk Weighted Assets 216.6
Tier 1 Ratio 10.7%
Total Capital Ratio 16.1%
The number above does not reflect the impact of the issuance of $4.0 billion of Common Stock and of $2.0 billion of 8.75% Non-Cumulative Mandatory Convertible Preferred Stock Series Q on June 12, 2008.

So what’s the problem? Well, problem #1 is leverage:

Lehman Brothers Leverage Ratios
Item 2008-5-31 2008-2-29 2007-11-30
Total Stockholders’ Equity $26,276 $24,832 $22,490
Junior Sub. Notes 5,004 4,976 4,740
Intangibles (4,101) (4,112) (4,127)
Tangible Equity Capital $27,179 $25,696 $23,103
Total Assets 639,432 786,035 691,063
Leverage Ratio 24.34x 31.65x 30.73x
Net Assets 327,774 396,673 372,959
Net Leverage Ratio 12.06x 15.44x 16.14x
The table above does not reflect the impact of the issuance of $4.0 billion of common stock and of $2.0 billion of 8.75% Non-Cumulative Mandatory Convertible Preferred Stock, Series Q, on June 12, 2008. On a pro forma basis including those equity issuances, the Company’s leverage ratio and net leverage ratio would have been 20.00x and 10.06x, respectively.

The company states:

The Company believes that a more meaningful, comparative ratio for companies in the securities industry is net leverage, which is the result of net assets divided by tangible equity capital.

The Company’s net leverage ratio is calculated as net assets divided by tangible equity capital. The Company calculates net assets by excluding from total assets: (i) cash and securities segregated and on deposit for regulatory and other purposes; (ii) collateralized lending agreements; and (iii) identifiable intangible assets and goodwill. The Company believes net leverage based on net assets to be a more useful measure of leverage, because it excludes certain low-risk, non-inventory assets and utilizes tangible equity capital as a measure of equity base.

Virtually the entire difference between “Total Assets” and “Net Assets” is due to “Collateralized lending agreements”.

One manner in which they attempt to address the liquidity risk is:

Seeking term funding whenever possible. The average remaining maturity of the Company’s tri-party repurchase agreements, excluding government and agency securities, was 35 days at May 31, 2008, compared with 22 days at February 29, 2008 and 27 days at November 30, 2007. Excluding securities that can be pledged to central banks, the average remaining maturity of the Company’s tri-party repurchase agreements was over 40 days at May 31, 2008.

Conclusions? You won’t find any here! If they were to experience difficulty in rolling their repos, the difference between “gross assets” and “net assets” could become rather important.