I mentioned one half of this pairing in the January 17, 2007 report and I’ll just make things more explicit here.
This pair is very similar to the BBD.PR.B / BBD.PR.D pair that has been discussed previously. They are convertable into each other on December 1, 2007, just over ten months off, but are trading at prices that are very different.
At the moment, for instance, BCE.PR.Z is quoted at 26.38-75, 1×9, and BCE.PR.Y is quoted at 24.86-90, 4×9. Between now and December 1, 2007, when they can convert into each other, the former issue may be expected to pay dividends at a fixed rate totalling $1.3298, while the Ys, paying a ratchetFloatingRate based on Canadian Prime will pay somewhere around 0.92125. Therefore, the price differential, in the absence of liquidity premia, should be in the neighborhood of $0.40 … but it ain’t. The differential bid/bid is more like $1.50, implying (in this very simple analysis) that there is $1.10 just lying around waiting to be scooped up.
I recognize that the BCE.PR.Y (the cheap ones) are relatively illiquid, due to their float of only 1.1-million-odd shares. The Zs (the expensive ones) have a float of 8.8-million-odd shares. So, there will be problems exploiting this inefficiency for those who care to try it.
But … what I can’t understand is: why would anybody hold the Zs? Even if they’re unable to buy sufficient Ys to replace them? BCE can put an extremely low rate on the “Z” dividend payout commencing December 1, 2007, all but forcing conversion. Surely nobody seriously believes that BCE will leave the rate as it was set five years ago, at 5.319%. In BCE’s last ratchet/reset, the BCE.PR.S / BCE.PR.T the rate was reset to 4.502% … and I certainly wouldn’t bet on this very generous payout being offered again on the Y/Z reset date.
Update: The Zs actually went up in price today (2007-1-18) (bid/bid), closing at 26.39-75, 3×8. Why? Surely there will be few who disagree that the projected price as of the Dec. 1 conversion date is $25.00 … and if you do disagree, please leave a comment, because I’m interest. So the projected capital loss (from the bid price) exceeds the intervening dividends – expected total return over the next 10 months is negative. I don’t understand ….